Has anyone considered going without a new car to replace your current one when you get to the end of the deal and if on PCP, paying the settlement figure and keeping it? If you've had it from new, you'll know where it's been, so it's not such a lottery that buying a new car could be.
The reason I ask is that I upped my mortgage payments by what most pay monthly for a PCP on a new car a few years back. It took years off the term of my mortgage and it got paid off in no time. Now with no mortgage to pay and having being used to finding £££s each month, putting money aside for nice things is not such a strain.
Thats assuming two things:
1) You have the cash for the final balloon payment
2) That the PCP interest rate is more than your mortgage interest rate. If it isn't then you are actually better served using whatever cash you have to pay a lump off of your mortgage.
Always best to use cash to relieve the highest interest loans you have - credit cards being the main menace!
This is my first ever PCP car. In fact its the first car I've had on any finance at all (I've driven company cars since the year dot and only bailed now because HMRC have finally cranked the tax up to the point at which its simply not cost effective to drive a company car, unless you want a milkfloat!).
Jury is still out with me on whether purchasing a possibly faultness, or at least "known quantity" at the end or not. Lots of factors yet unknowable about that for me yet - but it will largely depend on just how little over GFV I can get for it at the end of 3 years (either as a VW tradein or selling it privately). If its really rock bottom GFV, maybe purchase and keep another 2 years might be an option worth doing. I'm certainly not about to end up paying another deposit on PCP if I've just effectively lost the last one.